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Why does Paul cite Isaiah 52:5 and/or Ezekiel 36:20ff?

Both of these passages from Isaiah and Ezekiel take place during the Exile of the Jewish people from their land. Because the people were disobedient to the Law, God gave them over to the Babylonians in 586 BC. Here Paul is making a connection with this earlier event: When the Jews lost their land because of disobedience to God, this caused the Pagan nations to blaspheme God. How could God be with the Jews if they were being punished in this way? In the same way, how could God be with the Jews (in Paul’s day) if they were disobeying him (again) in such severe ways?

About The Author
James Rochford

James earned a Master’s degree in Theological Studies from Trinity Evangelical Divinity School, graduating magna cum laude. He is the founder of Evidence Unseen and the author of several books. James enjoys serving as a pastor at Dwell Community Church in Columbus, Ohio, where he lives with his wife and their two sons.